Posted Sat Jul 02, 2005 5:16 pm GMT by Waggs
The 5 cards used by both players was A-2-3-4-5,
Player 1 had J-6
Player 2 had A-3,
I'm wondering if it's a split pot because the best hand is a straight and both players can use the 5 card straight? Please clarify this for me, Thanks.
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Posted Sat Jul 02, 2005 6:07 pm GMT by jonesyb
player 1 has a higher straight than player 2. so player one wins i think.
Posted Sat Jul 02, 2005 7:04 pm GMT by TheSalche
correct ... you dont have to use both hole cards
Posted Sat Jul 02, 2005 7:12 pm GMT by Geno
Try this in future, it is handy for clearing up these sort of disputes:
http://www.texasholdem-poker.com/forum/t3459/poker-faq--please-read-before-starting-a-new-thread
Posted Wed Aug 24, 2005 3:47 am GMT by Riddell
You can't have an A-2-3-4-5 straight anywayz can you? sorry im a bit of a noob but i thought that you can't loop straights like Q-K-A-2-3
Posted Wed Aug 24, 2005 4:12 am GMT by Muck
| Riddell wrote: | | You can't have an A-2-3-4-5 straight anywayz can you? |
Ever heard the term “Aces High”? That’s what this means. An ace can only be played as it's high value.
But at every poker game I’ve played the standard rule is Aces High or Low. So:
A 2 3 4 5 Legal straight
T J Q K A Legal straight
But an Ace can not be High and Low at the same time:
Q K A 2 3 Illegal straight
Hope this helps.
Posted Wed Aug 24, 2005 4:38 am GMT by Riddell
AHHH thanks sorry. I do remember that now but it seemed to have slipped my mind . . . thanks for clearing it up
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