Posted Tue Feb 17, 2004 11:23 pm GMT by Rancid_Outlaw
What happens of two players have the same hand?
eg: P1 has 2&3 of diamonds and P2 has 6&7 of diamonds
the community cards reveal Ace(Diamonds) Jack(Diamonds) 5(Spades) 10(diamonds) 9(Clubs)
Who is declared winner and how is the winner in a situation like this determined?
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Posted Tue Feb 17, 2004 11:48 pm GMT by racquet000
Higher flush. Hence the 6 7 is higher then the 2 3. Therefor making it a
Player one: A,J,10,2,3
Player two: A,J,10,7,6
Player 2 wins. Best 5 card hand plays......
Posted Wed Feb 18, 2004 12:22 am GMT by ORGrinder
however.... in an ACTUAL tie... it becomes a split pot. doesn't matter how many players tie... 2, 3, 4.... the pot is split equally amongst them.
:D
Posted Tue Feb 24, 2004 4:33 pm GMT by HoldemShark04
Correct me if I'm wrong, but the only hands that can actually tie (between two players) is a Three of a Kind and a Four of a Kind... Anything else, & the pot would split if all cards in each hand are ranked the same.
Posted Tue Feb 24, 2004 10:25 pm GMT by JimiHWannaBe
no almost any type of hand can be split a pot for example when nobody can beat the board it will become a split pot or when two players have an identical straight or pair with the board serving as their kickers
Posted Wed Feb 25, 2004 11:16 am GMT by JohnnyCache
Yeah, its the best hand period, so if I had qT in my hand and somone had qj and the flop came qaak2 we would have identical aaqqk hands. - cause the table has a better avail. kicker then either of the pockets. . .
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