Posted Fri Aug 19, 2005 9:16 am GMT by Miss_J
I'm sure this is quite tedious for you guys all the time, and i thought i was sure about this situation, but sometimes its stil confusing. so here goes:
player 1: has k and 8
player 2: has k and 7
board is J K 9 5 Q
suits are insignificant in this hand.
now it is split pot because each player has two kings and neither player has a kicker higher than the QJ9(which makes 5 cards KKQJ9)? is that right? me and my boyfriend thought it would only be split pot if both players kicker were under all four other cards, in this case being QJ9 and the 5.
sorry about this.
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Posted Fri Aug 19, 2005 9:19 am GMT by ballbp
Yep split pot.
Posted Fri Aug 19, 2005 9:27 am GMT by Miss_J
Yes but is it for the reason i stated? because of QJ9?
what if it were like so...
player 1: has A and 10
player 2: has A and 7
board is J A 9 5 Q
so player one has AAQJT and wins?
Posted Fri Aug 19, 2005 9:30 am GMT by ballbp
Yes you got it right.
Posted Fri Aug 19, 2005 9:35 am GMT by Miss_J
ok thanks a bunch
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