Posted Tue Aug 23, 2005 2:14 pm GMT by kiFF_aKa
If Player A has $200 and Player B has $300 and Player A goes all in, does Player B only have to put in $200 to call, or does he have to put all of his chips in, hence making both of them all in?
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Posted Tue Aug 23, 2005 2:21 pm GMT by Launchpad
Nope, PLayer B only needs to put 200 in to match Player A's all in.
Posted Tue Aug 23, 2005 2:44 pm GMT by K-rug
You can only win or lose as much as you have in chips multiplied by the number of players that call. But don't forget about the blinds or antes. Those count too.
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