Posted Sun Oct 02, 2005 6:34 am GMT by stigi19
I don't know if i can explain this but i try.
If they both players got straight on the table after river card, but player 1 uses both cards in his hand to complete the straight and player 2 uses just one card from his hand to complete the straight. Is there a rule for that? since player 1 uses both his cards on his hand, he got a stronger straight?
Just curious if there is a rule for that? Don't know if u understand, but i tried.
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Posted Sun Oct 02, 2005 7:04 am GMT by jonesyb
if they both have the same straight then its split.. does not matter if you have one, or two of those cards in your hand.
Posted Sun Oct 02, 2005 11:51 am GMT by JohnnyCache
The winner is the one that makes the higher straight, regardless of how many hole cards are used.
Player one has jack 2
player two has 6, 7
board comes
3 8 9 10 Q
Player two is playing
6 7 8 9 10
player one has
8 9 10 J Q
and is the winner as a straight to queen beats a straight to 10
Posted Mon Oct 03, 2005 3:37 am GMT by stigi19
yeah, but if they both have the same straight, but one of the players uses both of his cards to complete the straight, and the other player only one card from his hand, this doesn't matter? its still a split?
Posted Mon Oct 03, 2005 5:15 am GMT by Muck
| stigi19 wrote: | | yeah, but if they both have the same straight, but one of the players uses both of his cards to complete the straight, and the other player only one card from his hand, this doesn't matter? its still a split? |
Correct. They both have the same hand, an x high straight.
That fact that one player is using 3 board cards and the other needs to use 4 board cards makes no difference.
Posted Mon Oct 03, 2005 9:41 am GMT by DougisRad
I'm not making fun of stigi here, but I can just see this misunderstanding in his home game.
Young Guy: Ahhh, yes! I pulled out the J on the river to at least get a split, whew!
Other Guy: NUH UH! I used BOTH of my cards and you only used ONE! I WIN! HAHA!
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