Posted Tue Dec 27, 2005 6:22 am GMT by Idan
Hi,
I'm learning how to play Texas Hold'em and i'm having some trouble figuring out the concept of the "all-in" and the effect it has on the pot.
For example:
Player1 bets a 2$
Player2 raises 2$, placing a total of 4$ in the pot.
Player3 has only 3$ and he does an "All in"
we now have 2 different pots relating to 2 groups of players. How does the pot division works ? is it different if a player does an all-in for more than the required amount, for example 25$.
Is there a consistent method of dividing the pot ?
- Thanks.
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Posted Tue Dec 27, 2005 7:51 am GMT by Geno
The idea of 'side pots' and 'main pots' comes into play here. Player 3 can only win an amount equivalent to his total chip stack from Players 1 & 2 (eg $3 from each).
The action is on Player 1 after Player 3 goes all-in. To call he must bet $2 as that was the raise by Player 2. If we assume he does this, the pots are as follows:
Main Pot : $9 - this is $3 from each player which is the max Player 3 can win
Side Pot : $2 - this is the extra $1 Players 1 & 2 wagered over and above the $3 all-in bet by Player 3.
After the flop is dealt, any further betting can only happen between Players 1 & 2 and will be added to the side pot.
At the showdown, if Player 3 has the best hand, he wins ONLY the main pot of $9. The next best hand between Players 1 & 2 wins the side pot. If Player 3 does NOT have the best hand, he is out and the best hand between Players 1 & 2 wins both pots as they have money invested in both.
For interest - if after Player 3 goes all-in, Player 1 decides to fold, Player 2 takes the $2 that Player 1 initially bet and takes back $1 of his $4 bet so the pot is $3 from Player 2 and $3 from Player 3. Their cards are flipped over and the community cards are dealt to decide the winner. The best hand takes the $6 pot and there is no need for side pots as only one player remains besides the player who is all-in.
Posted Tue Dec 27, 2005 12:09 pm GMT by Idan
Thanks for answering,
But what happens in the scenario described above when player 1 calls and after the next community card is shown – player 2 decides to raise 10$ and then player 1 decides to fold – how much money will player 3 gets if he's got the winning hand?
And – is it possible for player 1 to still win the pot he shares with player 3 ? (I think not).
Posted Tue Dec 27, 2005 12:18 pm GMT by Miss_J
| Idan wrote: | Thanks for answering,
But what happens in the scenario described above when player 1 calls and after the next community card is shown – player 2 decides to raise 10$ and then player 1 decides to fold – how much money will player 3 gets if he's got the winning hand?
And – is it possible for player 1 to still win the pot he shares with player 3 ? (I think not). |
if player 1 folds after player 2's bet, the bet is returned to player 2.
and no, player 1 wins nothing, he's no longer in the hand.
Posted Tue Dec 27, 2005 2:45 pm GMT by TheSalche
Player 3 may only win the MAIN pot, which would be $3 from each player (as well as the blinds if there are any).
If there is a side pot of $2, and player 1 bets $10 and player 2 folds, then player 1 is returned their $10 bet and wins the side pot $2 (equivalent of somebody folding mid-hand and winning the main pot).
Now, the main pot of $9 is in contention between Player 1 and player 3. Since player 3 is all-in, the turn and the river must be dealt, best 5 card hand wins, etc.
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