Posted Wed Apr 26, 2006 8:49 am GMT by Dat_Dude
I am pretty good with odds, but a buddy had a question that I wanted to verify. I feel kind of silly even asking, but it is mainly semantics.
Is the percentage of a hand PREFLOP represent the percentage of the time it wins if it goes all the way to showdown?
For Example:
Player 1: A  A 
Player 2: 6  6
Now I know that Player 1 PREFLOP is almost an 81% favorite to win that hand. Does this mean 81% of the time this hand will win if it goes all the way to showdown?
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Posted Wed Apr 26, 2006 8:59 am GMT by Dave B
yes
Posted Wed Apr 26, 2006 9:12 am GMT by supafrey
nods.
Posted Wed Apr 26, 2006 3:55 pm GMT by Johny
What else could it mean? 
Posted Wed Apr 26, 2006 4:08 pm GMT by kainARGH
| Johny4444 wrote: | | What else could it mean? |
I sympathize with OP , as I used to struggle with the following concept.
If your 47/53 % to win a hand PF ...... yest on the turn say your NOW 95% likly to win ..... and you lose.......Did I just suffer a 5% bad beat , or no beat at all as it was nearly 50/50 pre flop?
Example ,
cash game:
1010 VS AKs
flop Axx turn x river 10
Now we were just 50/50 pre flop , but afte the flop and turn , I was only loseing 5% of the time....I think I overthink stuff to much 
Posted Wed Apr 26, 2006 5:21 pm GMT by tame_deuces
| kainARGH wrote: | | Johny4444 wrote: | | What else could it mean? |
I sympathize with OP , as I used to struggle with the following concept.
If your 47/53 % to win a hand PF ...... yest on the turn say your NOW 95% likly to win ..... and you lose.......Did I just suffer a 5% bad beat , or no beat at all as it was nearly 50/50 pre flop?
Example ,
cash game:
1010 VS AKs
flop Axx turn x river 10
Now we were just 50/50 pre flop , but afte the flop and turn , I was only loseing 5% of the time....I think I overthink stuff to much |
Following this logic you would deliver a horrible bad beat if you got all in preflop with AA vs 65, flop comes 347, turn A, river 3. :D
Always look at the odds from where the money went in.
Posted Wed Apr 26, 2006 7:15 pm GMT by kainARGH
| tame_deuces wrote: | | kainARGH wrote: | | Johny4444 wrote: | | What else could it mean? |
I sympathize with OP , as I used to struggle with the following concept.
If your 47/53 % to win a hand PF ...... yest on the turn say your NOW 95% likly to win ..... and you lose.......Did I just suffer a 5% bad beat , or no beat at all as it was nearly 50/50 pre flop?
Example ,
cash game:
1010 VS AKs
flop Axx turn x river 10
Now we were just 50/50 pre flop , but afte the flop and turn , I was only loseing 5% of the time....I think I overthink stuff to much |
Following this logic you would deliver a horrible bad beat if you got all in preflop with AA vs 65, flop comes 347, turn A, river 3. :D
Always look at the odds from where the money went in. |
yea , it took me a little while to finally relize - duh! its odds from the perspective of - how many chips were paid off and at what point.
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