Is this a donk thing to do? |
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Posted Thu Jul 27, 2006 10:43 am GMT by misterjokerboy
Say you're on a flush or straight draw and you've already decided that you're going to bet a certain amount (say half the pot for example) but a player ahead of you bets a similar amount.
Would this make it alright to call (regardless of the odds) or does it simply make me a donk?
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Posted Thu Jul 27, 2006 11:15 am GMT by Dat_Dude
| misterjokerboy wrote: |
Would this make it alright to call (regardless of the odds) or does it simply make me a donk? |
Well, maybe I am wrong to say this, but in my opinion, saying "regardless of the odds" when considering a call with a draw IS a donk way of thinking. If you are on a draw, then I feel you MUST consider your odds when making a CALL.
It is much different if you are the bettor though, since that means you are semi-bluffing.
Posted Thu Jul 27, 2006 11:53 am GMT by misterjokerboy
My thinking with this question was that if that if the person acting before me didn't bet and I did, then of coure I might win the pot there and then. As the other person did bet before me, and I was going to bet a similar amount anyway then obviously I could potentially win a bigger pot if I do hit.
Obviously the chances of hitting a gutshot are slim, but there are more outs with an open ended straight draw and even more still with the flush draw.
I'm just wondering whether there can be any justification for this kind of play or not
Posted Thu Jul 27, 2006 12:53 pm GMT by shorn7
As long as the odds are correct (both current and implied), then yes...calling here is fine. Otherwise, it is a mathematical error and over the long run will lose you $$.
Posted Thu Jul 27, 2006 1:01 pm GMT by Dat_Dude
I guess I really don't understand the point of this then.
You have position, in my opinion you shouldn't make up your mind of what you are going to do until it is your turn to act. Look at your opponent (if this is live obviously) to get a read and then wait for him to act. If he bets in front of you and all you have is a draw, then the justification you refer to is based on odds (both pot and implied).
The complexion of the hand changes based on who the aggressor is. Calling his bet just because you were going to make the same bet is NOT justification to make the call. An example would be if you planned on to push all your chips in from the small blind with ATs, does that mean you would CALL an all-in from someone in an earlier position?
Posted Thu Jul 27, 2006 1:45 pm GMT by misterjokerboy
The reason for me asking was that it's something I've done a couple of times, and had somehow managed to convince myself that it was perfectly reasonable play. I guess I kind of knew that it wasn't, but just wanted to make sure 
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