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ALL In Question

Posted Mon Sep 18, 2006 6:30 am GMT by Cutlass I
Hey there..

I am a NEWBIE in this. Been watching a bit on television though..

The other night some friends were playing "Texas Hold'm No Limit"

Chipleader goes "All in" and loses the hand. If he goes "ALL IN", does he lose ALL his chips, or only the what matches the guy who followed with an lower "ALL IN"..?

I have seen a "not" chipleader go "ALL IN" and then the Chip leader "matches" the bet (not all in for him), but how does it work when its the Chip Leader who initiates the "ALL IN".? Rolling Eyes

Looking forward to getting some qualified answers.

Thanks.

/ Palle

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Posted Mon Sep 18, 2006 9:28 am GMT by shorn7
If the chip leader is all-in, and someone with less chips calls him, then he gets to pull out the amount of chips that are over and above what the other player has. So he does not lose all his chips in that scenario, only what his opponent has.

Hope that helps.


Posted Mon Sep 18, 2006 9:33 am GMT by Cutlass I
Exactly what I was looking for..

Thanks..

/ Palle


Posted Mon Sep 18, 2006 9:34 am GMT by MasterShake
You cannot lose more than the other player has to wager.

Player A - 10,000 chips.
Player B - 5,000 chips.

Player A goes All-In for 10,000. Player B calls and puts in all of his 5,000 chips. Everyone else folds. Player A takes back 5,000 in chips and then they play out the hand. If player A loses, he still has 5,000 chips left. If player B loses he is out.




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