Forced under-raise question |
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Posted Sat Jan 12, 2008 2:13 pm GMT by Geno
Wow, that is a dumbass thread title but I cannot think of a better way to describe this succinctly.
This is stolen from another thread by K-Rug:
| K-rug wrote: | The TDA and WSOP rules state
In no-limit or pot-limit, a raise must be made by
a.) placing the full amount in the pot in one motion or
b.) verbally declaring the full amount prior to the initial placement of chips into the pot or
c.) verbally declaring "raise" prior to the placement of the amount to call into the pot and then completing the action with one additional motion. Less than a full raise in an all-in situation does not reopen the betting to a player who has already acted. |
The bold bit is the bit I am interested in because it cropped up recently at a live game I play.
Question 1.
Let's say we have a table of 10, the blinds are 1,000/2,000 and the BB has 3,500 chips.
Let's also say that a MP player with 20,000 chips has called the BB and the SB with 20,000 has completed. If the BB goes all-in, am I right to say that neither the MP player nor the SB can raise above the 3,500?
Question 2.
Let's say we have a table of 10, the blinds are 1,000/2,000 a player in MP has 10,000 chips and everyone else has 20,000 chips.
The action starts and the MP player min-raises to 4,000. The SB calls and the BB makes it 8,000 to go in total. If the MP player puts in his remaining chips which constitutes an under-raise of only 2,000 chips, what are the options open to the SB and BB players?
My thoughts are:
The SB can re-raise provided he makes it 12,000 total to go.
If the SB only calls the under-raise, the BB has no options other than to call the 2,000 or fold since he cannot re-open what was essentially his own initial raise which has not been raised since he made it.
Is that right? 
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