Posted Sun Oct 03, 2004 8:05 am GMT by duke
Friends and I were playing a no limit game with just an ante. We have come up with an ante structure that works for us and we don't use blinds. Last night we came upon the situation where a player had just the ante left and nothing more when the hand was dealt. Can he declare himself all in on the ante alone or does he need to have something to bet? Does it depend on if he has the bet or not? There were some that argued that he was automatically all in while others that said he needed something to bet all in with.
Can someone clear this up for next time.
Thanks
duke
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Posted Sun Oct 03, 2004 9:52 am GMT by wEbMaStEr
He is automatically all in if he cannot cover or has exactly the ante, he can only win the value of his ante from each of the other players in the pot tho.
If there is a deficit between his stack and the ante he is all in for that amount and a side pot is created for the remainder, anyone else coming in must come in for the value of the ante tho.
So say ante is 500 he has 400 left and 4 other players are in, main pot = 5x400 = 2000 and a side pot is created for the remaining 400
Posted Sun Oct 03, 2004 5:40 pm GMT by duke
Thanks for clearing that up!
duke
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