Posted Sat Jan 22, 2005 6:09 pm GMT by hasbar
Hi,
I hope someone can answer this for me. i was at a friends house and made the top 2 players. I was 200 dollars less than the chip leader and i was first to bet on the river which i placed a $1000 bet the dealer annouced my bet and pulled my chips into the pot and the other guy went all in. Now comes the problem should the dealer have put his $1000 into the pot to cover my bet then the rest of his chips be used for the all in? What ended up happening is i won the pot BUT he ended up with $1200 dollars in chips left because he never put $1000 chips to cover my bet OR does his all in cover my bet or did the dealer pull my chips into the pot to fast? What happened? i had people arguing on both sides. Im lost on this one, I play online all the time and the computer handles all this so i never worry about this kind of thing.
Thanks for the help
Hasbar
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Posted Sat Jan 22, 2005 6:16 pm GMT by MasterShake
If both players are all-in, then they are required to both put the EXACT SAME AMOUNT OF MONEY DOWN TO THE PENNY into the pot. If before the blinds and/or antes were posted you had $5000 and he had $5200 and you both went all in, then you should have $5000 in the pot and he should have $5000 in the pot. He would get to keep the extra $200 but THAT IS ALL.
Posted Tue Jan 25, 2005 2:36 pm GMT by pokerislife
yes he is required to cover your bet
Posted Tue Jan 25, 2005 2:45 pm GMT by QuietOne
Let's get this straight. He was the chip leaders and went all-in. You already bet $1000. You are required to put the rest of you chips in the pot if you want to play. If he wins, you double your money and he gets to keep the rest of his chips. If he wins, your out of the game.
If you folded after he went all-in, you lose you $1000.
Now, if he had 1200 chips and you only had 1000 chips and he went all-in and you called him, you should have had 2000 chips and he should have had 200 chips at the end.
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