Posted Thu Mar 03, 2005 3:25 pm GMT by alderon
so i played a hand the other day at a local pool hall. we have weekly (almost everynight) tourneys through a website that host these and keeps the points called barpoker.com.
anyways, back to the story, so theres 8 of us at the table. 5 of us stay in to the flop. the flop was Q,10,5 (not sure about the third card). guy to the right of me bets 25 (chips are 10,25,50,100 to start) and i raise 25 flopping the 2 pair as i had Q,10. guy to the left of me calls. 4th street is a 2. guy left of me bets 50, i raise 50, guy to the right calls. 5th comes out and its another random card. so we all bet another 100 a piece and turn over our cards.
guy to left of me has : Q, 10
guy to right of me has: Q, 10
ive got: Q, 10
none of us had ever seen anything like it. just curious if any of you are overly math savey and can tell me the actually odds of this occuring, b/c they seem to be next to impossible to me.
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Posted Thu Mar 03, 2005 4:20 pm GMT by galderon
By my calculations, 1 in 337677375 for three people to be dealt top two pair on the flop.
Posted Thu Mar 03, 2005 4:26 pm GMT by alderon
heh, i somehow figured it was that. id say my "impossible" odds were right on the money! =P
Posted Thu Apr 21, 2005 12:59 pm GMT by martini
This is what I got for the odds of three people all being dealt the same highest possible two pair after the flop: 47,977,738 to 1.
Posted Sun May 01, 2005 3:13 am GMT by gol4pro
(3c1)(3c1)/49c2
x
(2c1)(2c1)/47c2
x
(1c1)(1c1)/45c2
whatever that is....
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